A maker of private-label soap and shampoo, constructed for this page like every figure in it, has a debtor ledger of US$12.0m, of which US$1.0m is ineligible as overdue or subject to contra. One supermarket chain owes US$4.4m. The facility advances 80% of eligible debts and limits any one debtor to 25% of the eligible ledger. Both percentages belong to the example and are not a market norm. Amounts in US$m.
Eligible ledger: 12.0 − 1.0 = 11.00
Chain's share: 4.4 ÷ 11.0 = 40%
Cap on one debtor: 25% × 11.0 = 2.75
Excess over the cap: 4.4 − 2.75 = 1.65
Fundable ledger: 11.0 − 1.65 = 9.35
Base, no limit: 11.0 × 80% = 8.80
Base, with limit: 9.35 × 80% = 7.48
Funding the limit removes: 8.80 − 7.48 = 1.32
The soap maker's best customer has cost it US$1.32m of funding. The chain pays on time, so from the borrower's side this looks perverse. Now suppose the chain fails owing the full US$4.4m, the facility is fully drawn, and every other eligible debt is collected at face value.
Eligible debts left: 11.0 − 4.4 = 6.60
Shortfall, no limit: 8.80 − 6.60 = 2.20
Shortfall, with limit: 7.48 − 6.60 = 0.88
The limit does not remove the loss. It reduces it by the US$1.32m the lender declined to advance. The definition matters as well. If the agreement measures the 25% after the limit has been applied, the chain's own excess is left out of the figure it is measured against and the cap comes out lower:
Cap x = 25% × (6.6 + x) → 0.75x = 1.65 → x = 2.20
Fundable ledger: 6.6 + 2.2 = 8.80
Borrowing base at 80%: 8.8 × 80% = 7.04
Same ledger, same 25%, and US$0.44m less funding, because of how one sentence in the definition was drafted.